Posted on Saturday, May 24, 2014 @ 10:03 AM by oneofakind with a score of 0
Question ? If a Court has ruled (more than once) that there can be less children in a classroom-or a certain number of children in a classroom and the Government is not upholding to these numbers-Why has the Government not been charged with Contempt of Court ?
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Question ?
If a Court has ruled (more than once) that there can be less children in a classroom-or a certain number of children in a classroom and the Government is not upholding to these numbers-Why has the Government not been charged with Contempt of Court ?
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